Hospital and Clinical Pharmacy MCQ Questions with Answers for D.Pharma and B.Pharma

  1. Type I ADR reactions is___________
    a) Caused when T-cells bind to a specific antigen
    b) Caused by tissue injury
    c) IgE mediated
    d) Caused by cytotoxic antibodies
  2. Average time period for phase II clinical trials study is _
    a) Upto 4 year
    b) Upto few month
    c) Upto Two year
    d) Upto several year
  3. _ drug can cause lactic acidosis.
    a) Metformin
    b) Pioglitazone
    c) Repaglinide
    d) Glibenclamide
  4. The incidence ADR is highest in _.
    a) Children
    b) Elderly
    c) Women
    d) Men
  5. _ antihypertensive therapy should be avoided in type-1 diabetes mellitus
    a) ACE inhibitors
    b) High dose diuretics
    c) Centrally acting
    d) calcium channel blockers
  6. _ is an example of Category X drugs
    a) Diclofenac
    b) Ranitidine
    c) Lorazepam
    d) Paracetamol
  7. _ is indicated in agitation and restlessness in the elderly, despite the high
    incidence of extrapyramidal side-effects.
    a) Prochlorperazine
    b) Clozapine
    c) Haloperidol
    d) Flupentixol
  8. _ is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its Teratogenicity.
    a) Folic acid
    b) Calcium
    c) Retinol
    d) Iron
  9. _ commonly reported ADR of diureticclass of drugs.
    a) Hypokalemia
    b) Alopecia
    c) Skin disorder
    d) Rhinitis
  10. Which of the following responsibility of the clinical pharmacist is in direct
    patient care area?
    a) Supervision of drug administration techniques.
    b) Providing drug information to physicians and nurses.
    c) Identify drugs brought into the hospital by patients.
    d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all
    doses have been administered.
  11. Which of the following responsibility of community pharmacist is in dispensing area?
    a) Reviews all doses missed, reschedule the doses as necessary & signs all drugs not
    given notices.
    b) Supervision of drug administration.
    c) Ensures that establishes policies & procedures are followed.
    d) Reviewing of each patient’s drug administration forms periodically to ensure all
    doses have been administered.
  12. The most specific & sensitive method for assessment of compliance can be used to
    detect potent therapeutic agent in body fluids is
    a) Drug analysis.
    b) Interrogation.
    c) Urine marker.
    d) Residual Tablet counting.
  13. Which of the following reaction is called Augmented adverse drug reactions?
    a) Genetically determined effects.
    b) Idiosyncracy.
    c) Rebound effect on discontinuation
    d) Allergic reactions & anaphylaxis.
  14. Which one of these is a genetically determined adverse drug reactions?
    a) Addication.
    b) Teratogenecity.
    c) Carcinogenicity.
    d) Idiosyncracy.

15.____ causes pharmacodynamic drug interaction.
a) Gastric motility changes.
b) Stimulation of metabolism.
c) Alteration of pH of GIT.
d)Interactions at receptor site.

  1. The age related physiological change in geriatric patient which may affect drug distribution
    a) Increased body mass.
    b) Increased total body water.
    c) Increased total body fat.
    d) Increased serum albumin level.
  2. Organogenesis occurs during ______________stage.
    a) Pre-embryonic.
    b) Embryonic.
    c) Pre-Fetal.
    d) Fetal.
  3. _ absorption in infants and children is noticeably faster than in neonatal
    a) Oral.
    b) Topical
    c) Intravenous.
    d) Intramuscular.

19.Which of the following drug does not require therapeutic drug monitoring?
a) Digitoxin.
b) Gentamycin.
c) Phenytoin.
d) Paracetamol

  1. Autonomy in clinical studied is defined as
    a) Freedom, dignity and confidentiality of the subject; right to choose
    i.e. whether or not to participate in the trial or to continue with it.
    b) Motive to do good to the subject and/or the society at large.
    c) Not to do harm or put the participant at undue risk/disadvantage.
    d) Observance of fairness, honesty and impartiality in obtaining, analyzing
    & communicating the data.
  2. _ is an example of latent adverse drug reactions.
    a) Antibiotic-associated diarrhea
    b) Tardive dyskinesia
    c) Serum sickness
    d) Severe bronchoconstriction

22 .Mechanism by which adrenaline can prolong the duration of local anesthesia
a) Decreased permeability of the vascular endothelium
b) Precipitation of lidocaine
c) Changing the pH of the solution
d) Local Vasoconstriction

23._ antidiabetic drug is preferred for elderly patient
a) Gliclazide
b) Glibencamide
c) Metformin
d) Pioglitazone

24.Side effects of Valproic acid is _
a) Rhinitis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Confusion

25._ side effect is seen during the treatment with Levodopa
a) Dyskinesias
b) Bone marrow depression
c) Thombocytopenia
d) Impotence

26._ drug is usually avoided with breastfeeding.
a) Ibuprofen
b) propranalol
c) Methotrexate
d) Naproxe

27.The sponsor in clinical study is
a) Country.
b) Organisation.
c) Society.
d) Cohort.

  1. The written details for conduct trails to ensure quality control of trail is known as
    a) GCP.
    b) SOP.
    c) IEC.
    d) ADR.
  2. Science of collecting, monitoring, researching, assessing and evaluating information from
    healthcare providers and patients on the adverse effects of medications is known as
    a) Pharmacovigilance.
    b) Clinical Trails.
    c) Observational study.
    d) Qualitative study.
  3. An epidemic that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred
    to as
    a) Pandemic.
    b) Hyperendemic.
    c) Spanish flu.
    d) Endodermic.
  4. OECD stands for
    a) Outcome economy committee development.
    b) Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development.
    c) Out entry contact dossier.
    d) Organization for Evasive Co-operation and Development.

32 .Which is appropriate description of Average Costs?
a) The value of opportunities which have been lost by utilizing resources in particular
service or health technology.
b) The total costs (i.e. all the costs incurred in the delivery of a service) of a health care
system divided by the units of production.
c) Independent of the number of units of production and include heating, lighting and
fixed staffing costs.
d) The cost of the consumption of medicines is a good example of variable costs.

33._ drug is avoided in children’s under 4 years with diarrhea.
a) bisacodyl
b) loperamide
c) Bismuth subsalicylate
d) Ciprofloxacin

  1. All are Selected Cytochrome P3A4 Inducer EXCEPT___________
    a) Efavirenz
    b) Erythromycin
    c) Dexamethasone
    d) Nevirapine

35._ is the common and dose related side effect of salbutamol.
a) Decrease in blood pressure
b) Muscle tremor
c) Central nervous system stimulation
d) Hyperglycaemia

  1. According to Rawlins–Thompson classification Type D ADR includes___________
    a) Carcinogenesis
    b) Bradycardia associated with beta blockers
    c) Anaphylaxis associated with penicillin
    d) Opiate withdrawal syndrome
  2. The comparison of bioavailability between two dosage forms is refereed as____________
    A. Bioavailability
    B. Biopharmaceutics
    C. Biological
    D. Bioequivalence
  3. The highest serum drug concentration following a single dose or at a steady state within a
    dosing interval is called ……….
    A. Lead
    B. Peak
    C. Poison
    D. Mechanisms
  4. Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination?
    A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect.
    B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
    C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
    D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.
  5. The substantial degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism
    in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation.
    A. First-pass metabolism
    B. Disposition
    C. Antagonist
    D. Hydrophilic
  6. According to ICH GCP the investigator “should be qualified by………………………
    A. Training and experience
    B. Education, training and experience
    C. Education and experience
    D. Education and training
  7. Pharmaceutical equivalent that produce the same effects in patients
    A. Therapeutic equivalent
    B. Therapeutic window
    C. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
    D. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)
  8. How are prescription medicines different from OTC ones?
    A. They contain much smaller amounts of active ingredients
    B. They don’t contain dyes or preservatives
    C. They’re unsafe for use without medical supervision
    D. They can be toxic
  9. The ___ is the heart of the patient counselling session
    A) Preparing for the session.
    B) Opening the session.
    C) Counselling content.
    D) Closing the session.
  10. Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone?
    A. Steroid
    B. Estrogen
    C. Heparin
    D. Phenytoin
  11. Which of the following drug can result in result in cyanide poisoning?
    A. Amyl nitrite
    B. Hydroxycobalamine
    C. Sodium nitroprusside
    D. Sodium thiosulphate
  12. According to the principles of ICH GCP what should be recorded, handled, and stored in
    a way that allows its accurate reporting, interpretation and verification?
    A. Data entered into the case report form
    B. Source information
    C. All clinical trial information
    D. Essential documents
  13. According to the principles of ICH GCP, what is the most important consideration when
    conducting a clinical trial?
    A. data accuracy
    B. protection of trial subjects
    C. Process adherence
    D. Statistical quality checks
  14. What is informed consent in a clinical trial?
    a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
    b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
    c) Fake treatment
    d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures
  15. How many people will be selected for phase II trial?
    a) The whole market will be under surveillance
    b) 500-3000 people
    c) 100-300 people
    d) 20-50 people
  16. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction?
    A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin
    B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin
    C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid
    D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram
  17. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in the elderly
    A. Amlodipine
    B. Atenolol
    C. Benazepril
    D. Methyldopa
  18. Which of the following medication is safe to use in the third trimester of pregnancy?
    A. Acetaminophen
    B. Warfarin
    C. Aspirin
    D. Oxycodone
  19. Case control studies is called as
    A. Drug-oriented systems.
    B. Dose-oriented systems.
    C. Disease-oriented systems.
    D. Complication-oriented systems.
  20. A 92-year-old woman is an inpatient in the geriatric unit. She has multivascular
    dementia. She is more confused and agitated. She has been given lorazepam 4 mg
    intramuscularly. She is now unconscious with a generalized tonic clonic seizure and a
    respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.
    Which of the following could be used to reverse the effects of the lorazepam?
    A. Activated charcoal
    B. Flumazenil
    C. N-acetyl cysteine
    D. Naloxone
    E. Protamine sulphate
  21. __ of clinical trial involves first time human trial in a small number of
    a Phase I
    b Phase II
    c Phase III
    d Phase IV
  22. The purpose of preclinical testing is:
    a. To verify that a drug is sufficiently safe and effective to be tested in humans.
    b. To undergo preliminary testing in healthy humans to monitor the effects of the drug.
    c. To create a basic outline for the larger scale future tests on a widespread population.
    d. To develop method of drug analysis
  23. Cimetidine interacts with more drugs than ranitidine because;
    a) It is subjected to greater first pass metabolism
    b) It is a more potent enzyme inducer
    c) It is a more potent enzyme inhibitor
    d) It has better oral absorption
  24. What are Good Clinical Practices?
    a. Regulations set in place by Government that how clinical trials are supposed to be
    b. Clinical practices that adhere to the best standards of care.
    c. Widely accepted standards of practice during clinical trials
    d. The FDA’s requirements for how trials are conducted and documented
  25. Which is person responsible for the conduct of the clinical trial at a trial site?
    a) Clinical Research Coordinator
    b) Monitor
    c) Investigator
    d) Sponsor
  26. GCP provides public assurance that
    a) Rights and safety of participants are protected
    b) The rights, safety and wellbeing of research participants are protected and that
    research data are reliable.
    c) Results are reliable
    d) Safety of participant is observed and results are reliable
  27. Which of the following is a technique pharmacists can use to humanize themselves to
    their patients?
    a) Using the patient’s preferred name in conversation
    b) Delegating as many tasks as possible to an assistant
    c) Reading the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient
    d) Providing business cards at the desk
  28. Which of the following terms does not describe an Adverse Drug Reaction?
    a) Idiosyncrasy
    b) Anaphylaxis
    c) Teratogenic effect
    d) Placebo effect
  29. A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to treat
    an urinary tract infection. After three months of therapy patient’s serum creatinine levels were
    10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last
    dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug
    reaction the patient was suffering from?
    a) Type II allergic reaction
    b)Type III allergic reaction
    c) Pseudo allergic reaction
    d) Overdose toxicity
  30. Idiosyncrasy is_______________.
    a) Type A ADRs
    b) Type B ADRs
    c) Type C ADRs
    d) Type D ADRs
  31. Which of the following drug is not needed to be TDM?
    a) Carbamazepine.
    b) Penicillin.
    c) Digoxin.
    d) Gentamicin.
  32. Patient counselling helps to
    a) Know chemical structure of drug
    b) Develop business relations with pharmacist
    c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status.
    d) Pass time at old age
  33. Gary baby syndrome occur in new born with
    a) Tetracycline
    b) Chloramphenicol
    c) Penicillin
    d) Erythromycin
  34. Absorption of Griseofulvin increases with ————–diet.
    a) Carbohydrate
    b) Fatty
    c) protein
    d) vitamin
  35. When tetracycline is given with antacids the absorption of tetracycline
    a) Increases
    b) Decreases
    c) Minimally altered
    d) Not altered at all
  36. Which of the following would you classify as a pharmacodynamics interaction?
    a) ACE inhibitors with potassium-sparing diuretics cause life-threatening
    b) Antacids reduce the absorption of fluoroquinolones
    c) Increased bleeding due to cimetidine and warfarin
    d) Probenecid increases half-life of penicillin
  37. Which of the following is Type B ADRS?
    a) Hypoglycaemia caused by Insulin
    b) Dryness of mouth caused by Atropine
    c) Anaemia in patient with G6PD deficiency caused by Primaquine
    d) Hyperglycaemia caused by thiazide diuretics
  38. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring of
    a) Drug price
    b) Unethical practises
    c) Drug safety
    d) Pharmacy students
  39. GCP are seen in all of the following except
    a) Phase I trial
    b) Phase II trial
    c) Preclinical trials
    d) Phase IV trial
  40. Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and
    Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for
    a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules.
    b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules.
    c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started taking ramipril.
    d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.
  41. You are asked to compare the cost of four different antibacterial medicines. Which of the
    following treatment courses is the lowest cost?
    a) Medicine A costs £17.00 for 28 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and
    the usual treatment duration is 7 days.
    b) Medicine B costs £30.00 for 100 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet four times a day
    and the usual treatment duration is 7 days.
    c) Medicine C costs £20.00 for 25 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and
    the usual treatment duration is 5 days.
    d) Medicine D costs £25.00 for 14 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet each day and the
    usual treatment duration is 5 days.
  42. Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug
    a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic.
    b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and
    prevent their asthma.
    c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE
    d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.
  43. Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound?
    a) A compound that contains the element lead
    b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and
    clinical trials.
    c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point
    for the development of a drug.
    d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.


1 c
2 c
3 a
4 b
5 c
6 c
7 c
8 c
9 a
10 d
11 b
12 a
13 c
14 B
15 d
16 b
17 b
18 a
19 d
20 a
21 b
22 d
23 a
24 b
25 a
26 c
27 b
28 B
29 A
30 a
31 b
32 b
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 a
37 D
38 B
39 C
40 A
41 B
42 A
43 C
44 C
45 D
46 C
47 C
48 B
49 D
50 C
51 A
52 D
53 A
54 B
55 B
56 A
57 A
58 C
59 D
60 C
61 B
62 C
63 D
64 D
65 B
66 B
67 C
68 B
69 B
70 B
71 A
72 C
73 C
74 C
75 D
76 C
77 D
78 C